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As David Brown pointed out, it depends. I had to read his explanation a
couple of times before I caught on to what he was saying. I'll put quotes in
the phrase below to help illustrate it for other simpletons like myself.
;-) If I were marking this up for a grammar class, I would circle the
things in quotes and draw arrows to other parts of the sentence to show what
they modify.
Do you have a set of "rules that define [whatever]"--The rules
that define [whatever] make up a set.
OR
Do you have a "set of rules" that define [whatever].--The set
of rules define [whatever].
As others have suggested, if the second is what you mean, I would drop the
words "set of." Rules usually come in sets, so it's redundant.
Nice brain challenge for ending the week! :-) Happy Friday!
Donna
-----Original Message-----
From: bounce-techwr-l-152534 -at- lists -dot- raycomm -dot- com
[mailto:bounce-techwr-l-152534 -at- lists -dot- raycomm -dot- com]On Behalf Of
technical -at- theverbalist -dot- com
Sent: Friday, August 13, 2004 11:20 AM
To: TECHWR-L
Subject: Dorky grammar question
Heya Wr-lers
Sorry to bother the list with this, but I can't seem to find an answer in
my usual on-line grammar souces, and my mom (the former English teacher)
isn't home.
So, in the phrase "a set of rules that defines" does the verb "define" get
modified based on the singular noun "set"--making it "defines"--or based
on the plural noun "rules"--making it "define"?
...just some of the fun minutia that makes my job fun ;)
Grammatically,
Mandy
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