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If someone says '7 days' ina business document, but does not *specify*
business days or calendar days, do you assume calendar days?
I think I know the answer... but I don't like it ;-)
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I personally assume _nothing_. I have seen it argued in court that if it is
not specified in a contract, the receiver is free to apply whichever
definition is most advantageous for them. The author of the contract cannot
come back later with "but that wasn't what I meant".
It was a long time ago but I do remember clearly that the judge agreed.
Wow, another application for tech writers -- lawyers' offices! ;-)
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