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Subject:Inch vs. Inches From:Daniel Strychalski <dski -at- CAMEONET -dot- CAMEO -dot- COM -dot- TW> Date:Thu, 22 Jun 1995 12:53:58 +0800
Beth,
You said the answer to the question of whether to use "inch" or "inches" was
common sense. I wonder. We do say "zero degrees," and I have a book from
Sybex in front of me that contains the clause "a mere 0.2 inches is enough"
(while not a model of good writing, the book is passable on the whole). The
Chicago manual, on the other hand, although it doesn't treat the subject,
has the unit in the singular where the situation crops up in the glossary:
"Each sort is . . . 0.9186 inch high"; "approximately 0.028-0.091 inch."
Usage such as that in "0.2 inches" is common. The force of a digit other
than 1 before the unit might be the reason. I doubt many of us would notice
such usage except when reading very carefully. I wouldn't call it an
egregious error. Logic and natural language mix most uncomfortably.
You said you were surprised at the question. I wasn't. A friend whose
knowledge of grammar far surpasses mine recently called to ask exactly the
same thing.
Best 'n' all, Dan Strychalski dski -at- cameonet -dot- cameo -dot- com -dot- tw
