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Subject:Trademark nit From:Chris Hamilton <chamilton -at- GR -dot- COM> Date:Thu, 20 Mar 1997 15:49:39 -0600
Good afternoon (or whatever part of the day it is where you are)--
I know that a trademark should be an adjective and that it can't possess
things. But if I use the trademark and its associated noun, then use a
pronoun in place of them, can the pronoun own something.
For instance:
This is the XYZ(TM) thingamajig. Its best feature is that I make money
when people buy it.
Linguistically, it refers back to thingamajig, not XYZ. How about
legally?
Thanks.
Chris
--
Chris Hamilton, Technical Writer
Greenbrier & Russel
847.330.4146
"The essence of greatness is the preception that virtue is enough." --
Ralph Waldo Emerson
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