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Subject:Re: HELP - Bad contract wording? From:Marilynne Smith <mrsmith -at- CTS -dot- COM> Date:Sun, 7 Sep 1997 16:28:25 -0700
At 01:38 PM 9/7/97 -0400, JIMCHEVAL -at- AOL -dot- COM wrote:
>In a message dated 97-09-07 08:31:52 EDT, bosscomm -at- interlog -dot- com writes:
>
><<
> "The Contractor agrees not to enter into any direct or indirect
> contracts to provide similar services to a <company> customer as those
> provided by Contractor herein other than through <company> during the
> term of this Agreement and for a period of one year after the
> termination or expiration thereof, without the prior written consent of
> <company>." >>
>No way. Outrageous. For any length of contract, but for two months it's
>almost comical.
>
>Personally, I'd just send back the contract with that clause barred and
>initialed. If they want you badly enough, they'll just accept it. If they
>hold to it, well, you reallly really don't want to work with someone who's
>that intent on locking you into working for them exclusively (which would be
>the effective result.)
>
>Jim C.
>Los Angeles
>=======================================================
I've lined out things and I think no one even notices. They don't expect
you to do it. The clauses I look for are the ones that say they are
entitled to any writing I do during the period I work for them. It's my
feeling they are only entitled to my writing when I am actually at work for
them. Any writing I do at any other time belongs to me.
Do be aware that someone may take issue with it. Be prepared to state your
case.
Marilynne in San Diego
---------------------------------------------------------------
Marilynne Smith
Writing, Editing, and Online Documentation
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